"Bring forth men-children only" (Macbeth 2.1.73)

“Bring forth men-children only, / For thy undaunted mettle should compose / Nothing but males.” (2.173-75)

When reading this line by Macbeth in the book I interpreted it to mean different things. First, I thought that due to the sexual undertones that Macbeth was hoping for Lady Macbeth to produce a male heir to his throne so that the Macbeth family would remain in power. Thus, he is showing that is pleased with his wife and trusts in their plot to take the kingship from both Duncan and Banquo’s heirs. Second, I thought it to mean that Macbeth knows how manly his wife is and would not be able to give nurturing love to a young female daughter. This interpretation would reveal Macbeth’s knowledge of his wife’s manly power and his respect for it. It also somewhat shows that he is less of a man because he allows his wife to act as the stronger man.

In lecture, Professor Little added another dynamic. He described the necessity of women for procreation only in the very misogynist culture. Then he explained that for example, Lady Macbeth must have male children because of her very manly tendencies. I

Overall, it seems that Shakespeare continues to create an absolute male culture which dominates all facets of the play, even the possible offspring of Lady Macbeth. There is no room in the play for motherly love or young daughters. The focus is only male heirs and male kings.

Candace Scalise
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